Test 20 de Farmacia de Atención Primaria: 30 preguntas razonadas

Test 20 de Farmacia de Atención Primaria: 30 preguntas razonadas

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Formación Farmacia Atención Primaria. Capacitación Uso Racional del Medicamento y Atención Farmacéutica

FORMACIÓN FAPsGal · ACTUALIZACIÓN 2026

Test 20 de Farmacia de Atención Primaria: 30 preguntas razonadas

Actualiza conocimientos de farmacoterapia, seguridad del paciente y revisión de la medicación con casos aplicados a la práctica del farmacéutico de Atención Primaria y a la preparación de pruebas selectivas.

30preguntas
5opciones
1respuesta válida
35-45 minestimados
Comenzar el Test 20

¿Qué encontrarás en este test actualizado?

  • Biológicos: mepolizumab y etanercept.
  • Nueva nomenclatura de anticuerpos monoclonales.
  • Anticoagulación, conciliación y transiciones asistenciales.
  • Asma, corticoides inhalados y sobreutilización de SABA.
  • Vacunación frente a neumococo y herpes zóster.
  • Deterioro cognitivo y enfermedad de Alzheimer.
  • Antidepresivos, embarazo y prevención de recaídas.
  • Metotrexato, vacunas y seguridad farmacológica.
  • Tratamientos hipolipemiantes y lectura crítica.
  • Perampanel, centros sociosanitarios y monitorización de glucosa.

Revisión clínica y documental: septiembre de 2026. Las respuestas se apoyan en fichas técnicas, organismos reguladores y guías clínicas enlazadas en cada explicación.

Entrena el razonamiento farmacoterapéutico con FAPsGal

El Test 20 ha sido revisado para corregir preguntas ambiguas, retirar comparaciones no válidas y actualizar recomendaciones que han cambiado desde 2023. El objetivo no es memorizar una letra, sino comprender qué dato clínico o regulatorio modifica la decisión.

Los socios de FAPsGal pueden acceder al contenido formativo completo, con corrección inmediata, explicaciones razonadas y fuentes enlazadas.

Recursos relacionados

Preguntas frecuentes sobre el Test 20

¿Cuántas preguntas contiene el Test 20?

Contiene 30 preguntas de opción múltiple, con cinco alternativas y una única respuesta correcta.

¿Qué temas aborda?

Incluye farmacoterapia, biológicos, asma, vacunas, anticoagulación, conciliación, deterioro cognitivo, depresión, dislipidemia, epilepsia, seguridad del paciente y monitorización de glucosa.

¿Se muestran las respuestas inmediatamente?

La explicación razonada y la fuente aparecen después de acertar. Si la respuesta es incorrecta, el sistema permite reintentar sin revelar la solución.

¿Está actualizado respecto al PDF de 2023?

Sí. La versión web corrige preguntas ambiguas y actualiza contenidos regulatorios y clínicos revisados en septiembre de 2026.

¿Quién puede acceder al contenido completo?

El recurso formativo íntegro está reservado a socios de FAPsGal.

3 thoughts on “Test 20 de Farmacia de Atención Primaria: 30 preguntas razonadas”

  1. Hola, podéis confirmar la corrección de la 4 y la 27?
    Muchas gracias.

    • ANTICYTOKINE APPROACHES
      Several specific anticytokine therapies for the treatment of autoimmune diseases have been introduced into clinical practice.

      Nomenclature — Abbreviations placed at the ends of the names of therapeutic agents convey specific information relating to their structure [6]:

      ●”-cept” refers to fusion of a receptor to the Fc part of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1)

      ●”-mab” indicates a monoclonal antibody (mAb)

      ●”-ximab” indicates a chimeric mAb

      ●”-zumab” indicates a humanized mAb

      ●”-umab” indicates a fully human mAb

      In late 2021, an expanded collection of four suffixes was introduced to accommodate the increasing number of mAbs, to decrease sound-alikes, and to provide information about modifications to the immunoglobulin structure [7]. These suffixes are to be used instead of “mab” for mAbs developed from 2022 onward (see “Overview of therapeutic monoclonal antibodies”, section on ‘Naming conventions’):

      ●”tug” is used for full-length unmodified immunoglobulins that recognize a single epitope (monospecific)

      ●”bart” is used for full-length monospecific immunoglobulins with engineered constant regions or any point mutation introduced by engineering

      ●”mig” is used for bispecific or multispecific immunoglobulins with any structure

      ●”ment” is used for monospecific immunoglobulin variable region fragments

    • ANTICYTOKINE APPROACHES
      Several specific anticytokine therapies for the treatment of autoimmune diseases have been introduced into clinical practice.

      Nomenclature — Abbreviations placed at the ends of the names of therapeutic agents convey specific information relating to their structure [6]:

      ●”-cept” refers to fusion of a receptor to the Fc part of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1)

      ●”-mab” indicates a monoclonal antibody (mAb)

      ●”-ximab” indicates a chimeric mAb

      ●”-zumab” indicates a humanized mAb

      ●”-umab” indicates a fully human mAb

      In late 2021, an expanded collection of four suffixes was introduced to accommodate the increasing number of mAbs, to decrease sound-alikes, and to provide information about modifications to the immunoglobulin structure [7]. These suffixes are to be used instead of “mab” for mAbs developed from 2022 onward (see “Overview of therapeutic monoclonal antibodies”, section on ‘Naming conventions’):

      ●”tug” is used for full-length unmodified immunoglobulins that recognize a single epitope (monospecific)

      ●”bart” is used for full-length monospecific immunoglobulins with engineered constant regions or any point mutation introduced by engineering

      ●”mig” is used for bispecific or multispecific immunoglobulins with any structure

      ●”ment” is used for monospecific immunoglobulin variable region fragments

      Perampanel — Perampanel is an orally active, noncompetitive AMPA-type glutamate receptor antagonist. It appears to inhibit AMPA-induced increases in intracellular calcium, reducing neuronal excitability [177].

      ●Indications and efficacy – Perampanel is approved by the FDA for the treatment of focal-onset seizures with or without secondary generalization in patients with epilepsy four years of age and older, and as adjunctive treatment of primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures in patients with epilepsy 12 years of age and older [178]. Randomized trials have found that adjunctive therapy with once-daily perampanel (4 to 12 mg per day) resulted in a >50 percent reduction in seizure frequency in 29 to 36 percent of patients with refractory focal epilepsy, compared with 14 to 26 percent in placebo patients [179-182]. Improved efficacy has been observed with higher doses [183]. Perampanel also decreased the frequency of primary generalized seizures compared with placebo in a trial of 162 patients with drug-resistant idiopathic generalized epilepsy [184]. A 2022 review identified eight studies, mainly retrospective, evaluating perampanel as monotherapy for treating epilepsy and concluded that perampanel monotherapy was associated with favorable safety and efficacy, in line with evidence from clinical trials testing perampanel as adjunctive therapy [185].

      ●Metabolism and interactions – Perampanel is extensively metabolized by the liver, primarily via CYP3A4, CYP3A5, glucuronidation, and potentially other pathways. It has a prolonged and variable half-life (mean 105 hours), which may complicate dose titration and safety washout. Dose adjustments are recommended for patients with mild and moderate hepatic impairment, and the drug is not recommended for patients with severe hepatic or renal impairment, including those on hemodialysis.

      Clearance of perampanel is increased, and clinical effect decreased, in patients taking concomitant enzyme-inducing antiseizure medications such as phenytoin and carbamazepine (table 4A and table 4B) [183,186]. Strong inhibitors of CYP3A4 may modestly increase perampanel exposure (table 3). When dosed at 12 mg daily, perampanel can decrease the efficacy of levonorgestrel-containing hormonal contraception. Comprehensive information on drug-drug interactions can be determined using the Lexicomp drug interactions tool.

      ●Dosing – The recommended starting dose of perampanel is 2 mg taken once daily at bedtime, increasing by 2 mg/day no more frequently than once per week, to a maximum dose of 12 mg daily. Given the long half-life of perampanel, it may take up to two weeks to evaluate the full effect (steady state) of a dose adjustment. In patients taking enzyme-inducing antiseizure medications, the recommended starting dose is 4 mg.

      ●Adverse effects – The most common side effects observed in randomized trials include dizziness, somnolence, headache, fatigue, irritability, gait disturbance, falls, nausea, and weight gain (table 5A) [179,180,187,188]. Labeling information includes a boxed warning of serious neuropsychiatric effects including alteration of mood and aggression [178]. In a pooled analysis of the safety data from three randomized trials, the risk of psychiatric adverse effects was dose dependent and was increased compared with placebo for overall psychiatric symptoms (22, 17, and 12 percent for perampanel 12 mg, 8 mg, and placebo) as well as for more narrowly defined symptoms of hostility/aggression (6, 3, and 0.7 percent, respectively) [189]. A majority of patients with psychiatric adverse effects continued on study, some with dose reductions, and the proportion of patients with a psychiatric adverse effect who discontinued therapy completely was relatively low (14 percent).

      A smaller randomized trial in adolescents found similar results [190], whereas a retrospective review of 24 patients aged 12 to 18 years treated with perampanel at a tertiary care center reported a much higher rate of discontinuation (63 percent) [191]. Behavioral side effects were the most common reason for discontinuation and were considered severe in six patients (eg, homicidal ideation, self-harm, physical and verbal aggression). One patient developed oculogyric crisis related to perampanel.

      Perampanel is classified as a Schedule III drug by the United States Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) due to its potential for abuse [192].

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